Why is Edward III so often ignored?

Old men forget: yet all shall be forgot,

But he'll remember with advantages

What feats he did that day…

– Henry V, 4.3. 2284 – 86

We arrive at one of the most non-canonical plays in Shakespeare, but one that feels as Shakespearean as some of the most deeply entrenched in the canon. Why is this so?

I have never understood why Edward III is so seldom included in “complete” anthologies of Shakespeare and has such a history of exclusion. From my personal observation, even my first reading of the play, the internal evidence seems strong:

  1. The poetry and argument of the Countess sections feel like the kind of wordplay and cleverness one expects from the bard.

  2. There is literally a line lifted from one of the sonnets in the play, so he either reused it or it was stolen.

  3. The events and elements of Edward III are heavily mirrored and referenced in the play Henry V. It certainly seems Shakespeare had Edward III on his mind while writing his later history.

  4. The “flaws” and failures of Edward III seem no different from those of Henry VI, part 1. Why exclude Edward III while keeping Henry VI, part 1 firmly in the canon?

I mean, it seemed obvious that Shakespeare was heavily involved to me, but I’m just a casual reader and fan. Why isn’t it more accepted?

I had to research.

I came up with the following explanations:

  1. Edward III was excluded from the First Folio, while Henry VI, part 1 was included. The First Folio was ostensibly Shakespeare’s complete and official work, published after his death by his two colleagues, John Heminges and Henry Condell. However, although their contribution to solidifying Shakespeare’s canon is invaluable, they also clearly got some things wrong, excluding plays such as Pericles and Two Noble Kinsmen, as well as having weaker versions of some of the plays than were already published in quarto form. This topic is rich and interesting, and I don’t have time to unpack it in this post. However, it does explain why Henry VI, part 1 gets so much acceptance even though it is arguably as weak as Edward III.

  2. The Romantics idealized the genius poet working in solitude, and often excluded plays that seem imbalanced. This imbalance of quality can be explained by the fact of collaboration: two or more poets splitting the scenes to complete a work in less time or for other reasons. As Romantic as the lone poet seems, the vision doesn’t fit reality. We know from diaries of the time that collaboration occurred, and stylometric evidence shows multiple hands in as many as a third of the plays from Shakespeare’s day. To believe otherwise is subjective nonsense and false idealism.

  3. Powerhouse scholars such as Harold Bloom have dismissed the play, a serious blow against it. However, his criticisms of a lack of psychological depth are purely subjective and could be leveled as easily against Henry VI, part 1. So.

  4. Current stylometric studies (especially since 2009, when n-gram computational analyses were vastly improved) have attributed the language of the play to William Shakespeare and Thomas Kyd.

  5. Since the 1990s, Yale, New Cambridge, Riverside, Oxford, and Arden have all begun attributing the play at least partially to Shakespeare with an ever-growing degree of confidence.

In short, in spite of its shaky history, there’s no real reason to exclude Edward III and every reason to add it to a complete Shakespeare read-through. If you want to be a completionist, I recommend joining us!

Next time, I’ll give some other reasons why Edward III is a fun play.

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